Testing Materials -- Sensitive In Nature "Do Case Study

Length: 8 pages Subject: Military Type: Case Study Paper: #21523306 Related Topics: Standardized Testing, Plagiarism, Trust, Accident Investigation
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¶ … Testing) Materials -- Sensitive in Nature

"Do Not Copy, Print, Transmit, or Save Unless Specifically Authorized"

C400T Tactics and Sustainment Exam

Instructions: This is a take-home, open book exam, worth 40% of your overall C400T grade. All work must be your own. Do not discuss this examination or your answers with anyone other than your instructor. You will turn in all exam sheets and any additional supporting paperwork. In the interest of academic integrity and fairness, do not provide this test information to inbound students

This exam has four sections:

Section #1 is worth 20 points and is comprised of 20 separate multiple choice, true-false answers. Each question is worth one point.

Section #2 is worth 40 points and based on a brigade level situation & sketch. You will be asked to write a brigade mission statement a commander's intent and depict your battlefield visualization on a sketch .

Section #3 is worth 15 points. You will be asked to answer three short questions on sustainment operations.

Section #4 is worth 25 points and is a short, one to two page essay that addresses Unified Land Operations.

You are authorized to use a computer for research and/or typing your answers. If you choose to type your answers, ensure that you print and turn-in all products. Clearly indicate the question number for each of your typed answers. Attach your products to the examination packet and turn in together. Consistent with CGSC standards, typed responses should be 12 pt. Times New Roman font and double-spaced.

Ensure your name is on all products!

Your instructor will provide feedback and further assessment once the exams are graded.

Reminder: The Command and General Staff College (CGSC) does not tolerate cheating, plagiarism, or unauthorized collaboration. Therefore, you should review CGSC Bulletin #920, Academic Ethics Policy (February 2011) and the DDE Academic Ethics brief available on the course information page. Violation of academic ethics could result in an investigation and possible removal from the course.

Examination (Testing) Materials -- Sensitive in Nature

"Do Not Copy, Print, Transmit, or Save Unless Specifically Authorized"

C400T Tactics and Sustainment Exam

Examination (Testing) Materials -- Sensitive in Nature

"Do Not Copy, Print, Transmit, or Save Unless Specifically Authorized"

C400T Tactics and Sustainment Exam (Revised: 5 Sep 13)


- 3-

Section 1: Directions: For questions 1 through 20, circle the letter that best answers the question. Multiple Choice and True and False

Using ADRP 1-02, circle the letter that best describes the operational symbol or unit or that best answers the first two (2) questions.


a. Anti-tank Infantry -- Hostile

b. Infantry -- Unknown

c. Rotary Wing Aviation -- Hostile

d. Infantry -- Hostile


a. Tactical mission task of breach

b. Engineer intent of bypass

c. Engineer intent of block

d. Tactical mission task of block

3. According to ADP 3-0, Unified Land Operations (Oct 11), Army leaders use the Operational Framework to clearly articulate their concept of operations in time, space, purpose, and resources. Which of the following statements is false concerning the doctrinal application of Operational Framework:

a. A commander may use the deep-close-security framework to describe the operation in time and space.

b. The Decisive Operation is the unit that has the priority of resources.

c. A commander may use conceptual frameworks (deep-close-security, main-supporting efforts, decisive-shaping-sustaining operations) in combination to articulate their concept of the operation.

d. Security operations provide early warning of enemy operations, provide the force with time and maneuver space, protect the force from surprise, and help to develop the situation.

e. The Main Effort can shift one or more times during execution.

4. According to FM 2-01.3, Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB) (Oct 2010), in which step of IPB do planners identify threat capabilities?

a. Define the operational environment

b. Determine threat courses of action

c. Describe the environmental effects on operations

d. Evaluate the threat

5. Which of the following is used to develop the modified combined obstacles overlay?



c. Analysis of slope, soil, vegetation, and built-up areas

d. All of the above

6. Your guidance from your commander is to avoid the enemy's strength and attack to seize an objective close behind their current defensive positions. Which form of maneuver best describes your operation?

a. Encirclement

b. Turning movement

c. Envelopment

d. Flank attack

7. What are the four primary offensive tasks?

a. Attack, pursuit, movement to contact, and exploitation

b. Search and attack, hasty attack, deliberate attack, and spoiling attack

c. Raid, ambush, feint, and demonstration

d. Screen,...


Which of the following is not an element of the art of command?

a. Experience

b. Decisionmaking

c. Leadership

d. Authority

9. According to ADRP 3-28, Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA) addresses the consequences of natural or man-made disasters, accidents, terrorist attacks, and incidents both foreign and domestic through force projection and immediate commander's response.

a. True

b. False

10. When reporting readiness to HQ/DA, the commander rates only the mission-essential tasks (METs) in the standardized DA directed METL even if changes were made by the commander based on designation as a Deployment Expeditionary Force (DEF).

a. True

b. False

11. According to FM 3-90 Volume 1, Offense and Defense (Aug 12), what are the three primary defensive tasks?

a. Block, fix, and disrupt

b. Withdrawal, delay, and retirement

c. Area, mobile, and retrograde

d. Disruption, positional, and mobile

12. Current U.S. Army doctrine defines mission command philosophy as?

a. The exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent to empower agile and adaptive leaders in the conduct of unified land operations

b. The exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent to mass combat power at the critical time and place to overwhelm enemy forces

c. The art and science of continuously leading and assessing soldiers against an adaptive enemy to accomplish the mission

d. Planning and executing operations through mission-style orders to achieve synergistic effects and enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent

13. According to ADRP 3-07, which Army Stability Task is most closely associated with the Department of State's Stability Sector of Humanitarian Assistance and Social Well-Being?

a. Establish Civil Security

b. Restore Essential Services

c. Establish Civil Control

d. Support to Economic and Infrastructure Development

14. For Defense Support to Civil Authorities, the Department of the Defense does not lead any Emergency Support Function (ESF) but supports other governmental agencies in performing the 15 ESFs.

a. True

b. False

15. What are the components of the commander's intent?

a. End state and military conditions; center of gravity; decisive points and objectives; lines of operation; culminating point; operational reach, approach, and pauses; simultaneous and sequential operations; linear and nonlinear operations; and tempo.

b. Expanded purpose, key tasks, and end state.

c. Planning guidance and mission command.

d. Tempo; lines of effort; objectives; simultaneous and sequential operations; main effort; shaping effort; and end state.

16. Based on ADRP 6-0, Mission Command (May 12), which of the following is not a staff task to support the commander in understanding situations, decision-making, and implementing decisions?

a. Conduct information management

b. Conduct military deception

c. Conduct the operations process

d. Conduct inform and influence activities

17. According to ADP 3-0, Unified Land Operations (Oct 11), the ____ Operation leads directly to the accomplishment of a commander's purpose?

a. Shaping

b. Sustaining

c. Deception

d. Decisive

18. Your unit has been ordered to defend along a river to prevent enemy crossings for 48 hours. What form of defense doctrinally describes your task?

a. Delay

b. Reverse slope defense

c. Perimeter defense

d. Defense of a linear obstacle

19. The Organizational Inspection Program (OIP) is the commander's comprehensive plan to manage all inspections and audits within his or her command. The OIP consists of what three (3) inspection programs?

a. Initial Command Inspections, Command Inspections, and Inspector General Inspections

b. Command Inspections, Staff Inspections, and Inspector General Inspections

c. Staff Inspections, Staff Assistance Visits, and Command Inspections

d. Initial Command Inspections, Subsequent Command Inspections, and Inspector General Inspections

20. A Limit of Advance (LOA) is designated in which of the following operations?

a. Offensive

b. Defensive

c. Security

d. Reconnaissance

e. Both Offensive and Security

Section 2: Analyze and develop a doctrinal solution to a tactical problem.


THE SITUATION -- 30 minutes ago

1/1 ABCT is the lead element of the main body in the 1st Infantry Division's attack to seize OBJ FURY, a city 80 kilometers west of ROGERS. 1/1 ABCT as the division decisive operation was to seize OBJ FURY NLT H+12 in order to protect the II Corps main effort. The division's advance guard, 2/4 ABCT (attached to 1 ID), passed ROGERS without incident approximately two hours ago. In the period between 2/4's departure from ROGERS and 1/1's approach, the enemy quickly emplaced…

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